Discussion about this post

User's avatar
Richard N. Syder's avatar

I’m a little confused by your analysis of this paper. In it you state that the Sars cov2 virus inhibits hiv-1 infectivity. In your conclusion you state “I guess being exposed to spike is not such a good thing.

To my uneducated ears it sounds like you’re saying on one hand that COVID or the jab will reduce the infectivity of hiv-1 (which to me sounds like a good thing), but then you conclude that it’s not.

What am I missing?

Thanks in advance.

Expand full comment
13 more comments...

No posts